SECTION A: VERBAL AND LOGICAL ABILITY

Analyse the following passage and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 1 through 7 that follow.

India is renowned for its diversity. Dissimilitude abounds in every sphere -from the physical elements of its land and people to the intangible workings of its beliefs and practices. Indeed, given this variety, India itself appears to be not a single entity but an amalgamation, a "constructs" arising from the conjoining of innumerable, discrete parts. Modem scholarship has, quite properly, tended to explore these elements in isolation. (In part, this trend represents the conscious reversal of the stance taken by an earlier generation of scholars whose work reified India into a monolithic entity - a critical element in the much maligned "Orientalist" enterprise.) Nonetheless, the representation of India as a singular "Whole" is not an entirely capricious enterprise; for India is an identifiable entity, united by - if not bom out of - certain deep and pervasive structures. Thus, for example, the Hindu tradition has long maintained a body of mythology that weaves the disparate temples, gods, even geographic landscapes that exist throughout the subcontinent into a unified, albeit syncretic, whole.

In the realm of thought, there is no more pervasive, unifying structure than karma. It is the "doctrine" or "law" that ties actions to results and creates a determinant link between an individual's status in this life and his or her fate in future lives. Following what is considered to be its appearances in the Upanishads, the doctrine reaches into nearly every corner of Hindu thought. Indeed, its dominance is such in the Hindu world view that karma encompasses, at the same time, life-affirming and life-negating functions; for just as it defines the world in terms of the "positive" function of delineating a doctrine of rewards and punishments, so too it defines the world through its "negative" representation of action as an all but inescapable trap, an unremitting cycle of death and rebirth.Despite - or perhaps because of- karma's ubiquity, the doctrine is not easily defined. Wendy Doniger O'Flaherty reports of a scholarly conference devoted to the study of karma that although the participants admitted to a general sense of the doctrine's parameters, considerable time was in a "lively but ultimately vain attempt to define.karma and rebirth". The base meaning of the term "karma" (or, more precisely, in its Sanskrit stem form, karman a neuter substantive) is "action". As a doctrine, karma encompasses a number of quasi-independent concepts: rebirth (punafjanam), consequence (phala, literally "fruit," a term that suggests the "ripening" of actions into consequences), and the valuation or "ethic-ization" of acts, qualifying them as either "good" (puny a or sukannan) or "bad" (papam orduskarman). In a general way, however, for at least the past two thousand years, the following (from the well known text, the Bhagavata Parana) has held true as representing the principal elements of the harm a doctrine: "The same person enjoys the fruit of the same sinful or a meritorious act in the next world in the same manner and to the same extent according to the manner and extent, to which that (sinful or meritorious) act has been done by him in this world." Nevertheless, depending on the doctrine's context, which itself ranges from its appearance in a vast number of literary sources to its usage on the popular level, not all these elements may be present (though in a general way they may be implicit).

1. The orientalist perspective, according to the author:
A. Viewed India as a country of diversity.
B. Viewed India as if it was a single and unitary entity devoid of diversity.
C. Viewed India both as single and diverse entity.
D. Viewed India as land of karma.
E. Viewed India in the entirety.
The correct answer is option B.

2. "Reify" in the passage means:
A. To make real out of abstract
B. Reversal of stance
C. Unitary whole
D. Diversity
E. Unity in diversity
The correct answer is option C.

3. "Ethic-ization" in the passage means
A. Process of making something ethical
B. Converting unethical persons into ethical
C. Judging and evaluation.
D. Teaching ethics
E. None of the above
The correct answer is option E.

4. Consider the following statements:
1. Meaning of karma is contextual.
2. Meaning of karma is not unanimous.
3. Meaning of karma includes many other quasi-independent concepts.
4. Karma also means actions and their rewards.

Which of the above statements are true?
A. 1,2,3
B. 2,3,4
C. 1,3,4
D. None of the above
E. All the four are true
The correct answer is option E.

5. The base meaning of karma is:
A. reward and punishment.
B. only those actions which yield a "phala".
C. any action.
D. ripening of actions into consequences.
E. None of the above
The correct answer is option C.

6. As per the author, which of the following statements is wrong?
A. India is a diverse country.
B. Doctrine of karma runs across divergent Hindu thoughts.
C. Doctrine of karma has a rich scholarly discourse.
D. Scholars could not resolve the meaning of karma.
E. Modern scholars have studied Hinduism as a syncretic whole.
The correct answer is option A.

7.Which of the following, if true, would be required for the concept of karma - as defined in Bhagavata Purana - to be made equally valid across different space-time combinations?
A. Karma is judged based on the observers' perception, and hence the observer is a necessary condition for its validity.
B. Karma is an orientalist concept limited to oriental countries.
C. Each epoch will have its own
understanding of karma and therefore there
can not be uniform validity of the concept of
karma.
D. The information of the past actions and
the righteousness of each action would be
embodied in the individual.
E. Each space-time combination would have
different norms of righteousness and their
respective expert panels which will judge
each action as per those norms.
The correct answer is option D.

Directions (8 -12): Choose the appropriate words to fill in the blanks.

8. Mark Twain was responsible for many striking, mostly cynical ______, such as "Always do right. That will gratify some of the people, and astonish the rest." ______can sometimes end up as _____, but rarely would someone use them as an ______.
A. epitaphs, Epitaphs, epigrams, epigraph
B. epigraphs. Epigraphs, epitaphs, epigraph
C. epigrams, Epitaphs, epigrams, epigraph
D. epitaphs, Epitaphs, epigraphs, epigram
E. epigrams. Epigrams, epigraphs, epitaph
The correct answer is option E.

9. A candidate in the medical viva voce exam faced a tinge of intellectual _______when asked to spell the_____ gland. The fact that he carried notes on his person would definitely be termed as _____ by faculty, but may be termed as ______ by more generous sections of students.

A. ambivalence, prostrate, amoral, immoral
B. ambiguity, prostrate, amoral, immoral
C. ambivalence, prostrate, immoral, amoral
D. ambivalence, prostate, immoral, amoral
E. ambiguity, prostrate, immoral, amoral
The correct answer is option B.

10. It is not_____ democratic that the parliament should be _____ on issues and resort to passing ______ rather than have an open debate on the floor of the house.

A. quite, quite, ordinances
B. quite, quiet, ordnances
C. quiet, quite, ordnances
D. quite, quiet, ordinances
E. quiet, quiet, ordinances
The correct answer is option D.

11. In a case of acute _______, _________ membranes secrete excessive__________ .

A. sinus, mucous, mucous
B. sinus, mucus, mucous
C. sinus, mucous, mucus
D. sinusitis, mucus, mucous
E. sinusitis, mucous, mucus
The correct answer is option E.

12. If a person makes the statement: “I never speak the truth.” The person can be said to be____.

A. speaking the truth.
B. lying.
C. lying as well as speaking the truth
D. making a logically contradictory statement.
E. partially speaking the truth and partially lying.
The correct answer is option D.

Analyse the passage given and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 13 through 15 that follow.

Deborah Mayo is a philosopher of science who has attempted to capture the implications of the new experimental ism in a philosophically rigorous way. Mayo focuses on the detailed way in which claims are validated by experiment, and is concerned with identifying just what claims are borne out and how. A key idea underlying her treatment is that a claim can only be said to be supported by experiment if the various ways in which the claim could be as fault have been investigated and eliminated. A claim can only be said to be borne out by experiment, and a severe test of a claim, as usefully construed by Mayo, must be such that the claim would be unlikely to pass it if it were false.

Her idea can be explained by some simple examples. Suppose Snell's law of refraction of light is tested by some very rough experiments in which very large margins of error are attributed to the measurements of angles of incidence and refraction, and suppose that the results are shown to be compatible with the law within those margins of error. Has the law been supported by experiments that have severely tested it? From Mayo's perspective the answer is "no" because, owing to the roughness of the measurements, the law of refraction would be quite likely to pass this test even if it were false and some other law differing not too much from Snell's law true. An exercise I carried out in my school-teaching days serves to drive this point home. My students had conducted some not very careful experiments to test Snell's law. I then presented them with some alternative laws of refraction that had been suggested in antiquity and mediaeval times, prior to the discovery of Snell's law, and invited the students to test them with the measurements they had used to test Snell's law; because of the wide margins of error they had attributed to their measurements, all of these alternative laws pass the test. This clearly brings out the point that the experiments in question did not constitute a severe test of Snell's law. The law would have passed the test even if it were false and one of the historical alternatives true.

13. Which of the following conclusion can be drawn from the passage?
A. Experimental data might support multiple theoretical explanations at the same time, hence validity of theories needs to be tested further.
B. Precise measurement is a sufficient condition to ensure validity of conclusions resulting from an experiment.
C. Precise measurement is both a necessary and sufficient condition to ensure validity of conclusions resulting from an experiment.
D. Precise measurement along with experimenter's knowledge of the theory underpinning the experiment is sufficient to ensure the validity of conclusions drawn from experiments.
E. All of these
The correct answer is option C.

14. As per Mayo's perspective, which of the following best defines the phrase "scientific explanation"?
A. One which is most detailed in its explanation of natural phenomena.
B. One which has been thoroughly tested by scientific experts.
C. One which survives examinations better than other explanations.
D. One which refutes other explanations convincingly.
E. All of these.
The correct answer is option D.

15. The author's use of Snell's law of refraction to illustrate Mayo's perspective can best said to be

A. Contrived.
B. Premeditated.
C. Superfluous.
D. Illustrative.
E. Inadequate.
The correct answer is option D.

Analyse the passage given and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 16 through 19 that follow.

Enunciated by Jung as an integral part of his psychology in 1916 immediately after his unsettling confrontation with the unconscious, the transcendent function was seen by Jung as uniting the opposites, transforming psyche, and central to the individuation process. It also undoubtedly reflects his personal experience in coming to terms with the unconscious. Jung portrayed the transcendent function as operating through symbol and fantasy and mediating between the opposites of consciousness and the unconscious to prompt the emergence of a new, third posture that transcends the two. In exploring the details of the transcendent function and its connection to other Jungian constructs, this work has unearthed significant changes, ambiguities, and inconsistencies in Jung's writings. Further, it has identified two separate images of the transcendent function: (1) the narrow transcendent function, the function or process within Jung's pantheon of psychic structures, generally seen as the uniting of the opposites of consciousness and the unconscious from which a new attitude emerges; and (2) the expansive transcendent function, the root metaphor for psyche or being psychological that subsumes Jung's pantheon and that apprehends the most fundamental psychic activity of interacting with the unknown or other. This book has also posited that the expansive transcendent function, as the root metaphor for exchanges between conscious and the unconscious, is the wellspring from whence flows other key Jungian structures such as the archetypes and the Self, and is the core of the individuation process. The expansive transcendent function has been explored further by surveying other schools of psychology, with both depth and non-depth orientations, and evaluating the transcendent function alongside structures or processes in those other schools which play similar mediatory and/or transitional roles.

16. The above passage is most likely an excerpt from:
A. A research note
B. An entry on a psychopathology blog
C. A popular magazine article
D. A scholarly treatise
E. A newspaper article
The correct answer is option A.

17. It can be definitely inferred from the passage above that
A. The expansive transcendent function would include elements of both the Consciousness and the Unconscious.
B. Archetypes emerge from the narrow transcendent function.
C. The whole work, from which this excerpt is taken, primarily concerns itself with the inconsistencies in Jung's writings.
D. Jung's pantheon of concepts subsumes the root metaphor of psyche.
E. The transcendent is the core of the individuation process.
The correct answer is option C.

18. A comparison similar to the distinction between the two images of the transcendent function would be:

A. raucous: hilarious
B. synchronicity: ontology
C. recession: withdrawal
D. penurious: decrepit
E. none of the above
The correct answer is option E.

19. As per the passage, the key Jungian structure - other than the Self - that emerges from the expansive transcendent function may NOT be expressed as a(n):
A. Stereotype
B. Anomaly
C. Idealized model
D. Original pattern
E. Epitome
The correct answer is option C.

Directions (20-27): Go through the caselets below and answer the questions that follow.

Question No (20-21): According to recent reports, CEOs of large organisations are paid more than CEOs of small organisations. It does not seem fair that just because a CEO is heading a big organisation s/he should be paid more. CEOs' salary should be related to performance, especially growth in terms of sales and profits. Of course, big organisations are more complex than the small, but all CEOs require significant amount of energy and time in managing organisations. There is no proof that CEOs of big organisations are more stressed than CEOs of small organisations. All CEOs should be paid according to their performance.

20. A person seeking to refute the argument might argue that
A. CEOs should be paid equally.
B. Managing big organisation is more challenging than small.
C. CEOs, who travel more should be paid more.
D. If CEOs of small companies perform well, the company would become big and so would be CEOs' salary.
E. Highly qualified CEOs should be paid more because they have acquired difficult education.
The correct answer is option B.

21. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the speaker's argument?
A. CEOs of small organisations come from good educational background.
B. CEOs of big organisations are very difficult to hire.
C. A few big family businesses have CEOs from within the family.
D. Big organisations contribute more towards moral development of society.
E. CEOs in big organisation take much longer to reach top, as compared to their counterparts in small organisations.
The correct answer is option A.

Question No (22-23): Hindi ought to be the official language of India. There is no reason for the government to spend money printing documents in different languages, just to cater to people who cannot read/write Hindi. The government has better ways to spend tax payers' money. People across India should read/write Hindi or learn it at the earliest.

22. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the speaker's argument the most?
A. The government currently translates official documents into more than eighteen languages.
B. Hindi is the most difficult language in the world to speak.
C. Most people who travel across India learn Hindi within five years.
D. Making Hindi the official language is a politically unpopular idea.
E. People who are multilingual usually pay maximum taxes.
The correct answer is option B.

23. United Nations members contribute funds, proportionate to their population, for facilitating smooth functioning of the UN. By 2010, India, being the most populous nation on the planet, would contribute the maximum amount to the UN. Therefore, official language of United Nations should be changed to Hindi.

Which of the following is true?
A. The point above contradicts the speaker's argument.
B. The point above extends the speaker's argument.
C. The point above is similar to speaker's argument.
D. The point above concludes speaker's argument.
E. The point above strengthens the speaker's argument.
The correct answer is option B.

Question No (24-25): The Bistupur-Sakchi corner needs a speed-breaker. Loyola school children cross this intersection, on their way to the school, and many a times do not check out for traffic. I get to read regular reports of cars and other vehicles hitting children. I know that speed-breakers are irritating for drivers, and I know that children cannot be protected from every danger, but this is one of the worst intersections in town. There needs to be a speed-breaker so that vehicles have to slow down and the children be made safer.

24. Which of the following arguments is used in the above passage?
A. Analogy—comparing the intersection to something dangerous.
B. Emotive—referring to the safety of children to get people interested.
C. Statistical analysis—noting the number of children hit by vehicles.
D. Personalization—telling the story of one child's near accident at the intersection.
E. Attack—pointing out people who an against speed-breakers as being uncaring, about children.
The correct answer is option B.

Note :-The Question was missing in Set "A", only the options were present.

25. According to a recent research conducted by the district road planning department, ten percent students come wit parents in cars, twenty percent students us auto-rickshaws, twenty percent students us taxis, forty percent students use the school buses and ten percent students live in the hostel inside the school.

Which of the following is true about the above paragraph?
A. It extends speaker's argument using analogy.
B. It extends the speaker's argument using statistical data.
C. It is similar to speaker's argument.
D. It concludes speaker's argument by using personalization.
E. It contradicts the speaker's argument using statistical data.
The correct answer is option E.

Question No (26-27): History, if viewed a repository not merely of anecdotes chronology, could produce a decisive transformation in the image of science which we are now possessed. That image has previously been drawn, even scientists themselves, mainly from the study of finished scientific achievements as the are recorded in the classics and, more recently, in the textbooks from which each new scientific generation learns to practice its trade.

26. Which of the following best summarizes the above paragraph?
A. Scientific achievements are recorded in classics and text books.
B. History of science can be inferred from finished scientific achievement
C. Different ways of looking at history can produce altogether different knowledge.
D. Text books may be biased.
E. All of above.
The correct answer is option C.

27. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
A. History of science presents a scientific way of looking at scientific developments and thus contributes to progress in science.
B. History of science should contain only the chronology of the scientific achievements.
C. More number of scientific theories results in more number of publications, which benefits publishers.
D. History of science should purposely present different images of science to people.
E. History of science can present multiple interpretations to people regarding the process of scientific developments.
The correct answer is option E.

Analyse the passage given and provide an appropriate answer for the question nos. 28 through 33 that follow.

Every conscious mental state has a qualitative character that we refer to as mood. We are always in a mood that is pleasurable or unpleasurable to some degree. It may be that bad moods relate to their being too positive reinforcement in a person's current life and too many punishments. In any case, moods are distinguished from emotions proper by not being tied to any specific object. But, this distinction is not watertight, in that emotions need not be directed at objects that are completely specific (we can be angry just at people generally) while there is always a sense of a mood having a general objective like the state of the world at large. Moods manifest themselves in positive or negative feelings that are tied to health, personality, or perceived quality of life. Moods can also relate to emotions proper, as in the aftermath of an emotional incident such as the failure to secure a loan. A mood on this basis is the mind's judgment on the recent past. For Goldie, emotion can bubble up and down within a mood, while an emotion can involve characteristics that are non-object specific.

What is important for marketing is that moods colour outlook and bias judgements. Hence the importance of consumer confidence surveys, as consumer confidence typically reflects national mood. There is mood - congruence when thoughts and actions fall inline with mood. As Goleman says, there is a "constant stream of feeling" that runs "in perfect to our steam of thought". Mood congruence occurs because a positive mood evokes pleasant associations that lighten subsequent appraisals (thoughts) and actions, while a negative arouses pessimistic associations that influence future judgment and behaviour. When consumers are in a good mood, they are more optimistic about buying more confident in buying, and much more willing to tolerate things like waiting in line. On the other hand, being in a mood makes buying behaviour in the "right mood" by the use of music and friendly staff or, say, opens bakeries in shopping malls that delight the passer-by with the smell of fresh bread.

Thayer views moods as a mixture of biological and psychological influences and, as such, a sort of clinical thermometer, reflecting all the internal and external events that influence us. For Thayer, the key
components of mood are energy and tension in different combinations. A specific mixture of energy and tension, together with the thoughts they influence, produces moods. He discusses four mood states:

Calm-energy: he regards this as the optimal mood of feeling good
Calm-tiredness: he regards this as feeling a little tired without any stress, which can be pleasant.
Tense-energy: involves a low level of anxiety suited to a fight-or-flight disposition.
Tense-tiredness: is a mixture of fatigue and anxiety, which underlies the unpleasant feeling of depression.

People generally can "feel down" or "feel good" as a result of happenings in the world around them. This represents the national mood. People feel elated when the national soccer team wins an international match or depressed when their team has lost. An elated mood of calm -energy is an optimistic mood, which is good for business. Consumers, as socially involved individuals, are deeply influenced by the prevailing social climate. Marketers recognize the phenomenon and talk about the national mood being, say for or against conspicuous consumption. Moods do change, though. Writing early in the nineteenth century, Toqueville describes an American elite embarrassed by the ostentation of material display; in the "Gilded Age", sixty years later, many were only too eager to embrace a materialistic vulgarity. The problem lies in anticipating changes in national mood, since a change in mood affects everything from buying of equities to the buying of houses and washing machines. Thayer would argue that we should be interested in national events that are likely to produce a move toward a tense- tiredness state or toward a calm-energy state, since these are the polar extremes and are more likely to influence behaviour. Artists sensitive to national moods express the long-term changes. An example is the long - term emotional journey from Charles Dickens's depiction of the death of little Nell to Oscar Wilde's cruel flippancy about it. "One would have to have a heart of stone not to laugh at the death of little Nell", which reflects the mood change from high Victorian sentimentality to the acerbic cynicism of the end of the century, as shown in writers like Thomas Hardy and artists like Aubrey Beardsley.

Whenever the mind is not fully absorbed, consciousness is no longer focused and ordered. Under such conditions the mind falls into dwelling on the unpleasant, with a negative mood developing. Csikszentmihalyi argues that humans need to keep consciousness fully active is what influences a good deal of consumer behaviour. Sometimes it does not matter what we are shopping for - the point is to shop for anything, regardless, as consuming is one way to respond to the void in consciousness when there is nothing else to do.

28. Which one of the following statements best summarizes the above passage?
A. The passage highlights how moods affect nations.
B. The passage highlights the importance of moods and emotions in marketing.
C. The passage draws distinction between moods and emotions.
D. Some writers influenced national moods through their writings.
E. Thayer categorised moods into four states.
The correct answer is option B.

29. Which of the following is the closest to "conspicuous consumption" in the passage?
A. Audible consumption
B. Consumption driven by moods and emotions
C. Socially responsible consumption
D. Consumption of material items for impressing others
E. Private but not public consumption
The correct answer is option D.

30. What is "moods congruence"?
A. When moods and emotions are synchronized.
B. When moods are synchronous with thoughts and actions.
C. When emotions are synchronous with actions and thoughts.
D. When moods are synchronous with thoughts but not with action.
E. When moods are synchronous with action but not with thought.
The correct answer is option B.

31.Implication and Proposition are defined as follows:

Implication: a statement which follows from the given text.
Proposition: a statement which forms a part of the given text.

Consider the two statements below and decide whether they are implications or propositions.
I. The marketers should understand and make use of moods and emotions in designing and selling products and services.
II. Consuming is nothing but way of filling the void in consciousness.

A. Both statements are implications.
B. First is implication, second is proposition.
C. Both are propositions.
D. First is proposition, second is implication.
E. Both are neither implication nor proposition.
The correct answer is option B.

32. Which statements from the ones given below are correct?
1. In general, emotions are object specific
2. In general, moods are not object specific
3. Moods and emotions are same
4. As per Thayer, moods are a mix of biological and psychological influences
A 1,2,3
B. 2,3,4
C. 2,4,3
D. 1,2,4
E. All four are right.
The correct answer is option D.

33. The statement "Moods provide energy for human actions" is __.
A. always right.
B. always wrong.
C. sometimes right.
D. not derived from the passage.
E. contradictory.
The correct answer is option A.

Directions (34 - 36): Carefully read the statements in the questions below and arrange them in a logical order.

34:

1.So too it is impossible for there to be proposition of ethics. Proposition cannot express that is higher.
2. The sense of the world must lie outside the world. In the world everything is as it is, and everything happens as it does happen: in it no value exists- and if it did exist, it would have no value. If there is any value that does have a value, it must lie outside the whole sphere of what happens and is the case. For all that happens and is the case is accidental. What makes it non-accidental cannot lie within the world, since if it did it would itself be accidental. It must lie outside world.
3. It is clear that ethics cannot be put into words. Ethics is transcendental.
4. All propositions are of equal value.

A. 4-2-1-3
B. 2-1-3-4
C. 1-3-4-2
D. 4-3-1-2
E. 3-1-2-4
The correct answer is option E.

35:
1. The fact all contribute only to setting the problem, not to its solution.
2. How things are in the world is a matter of complete indifference for what is higher. God does not reveal himself in the world.
3. To view the world sub specie aetemi is to view it as a whole- a limited whole. Feeling the world as a limited whole- it is this that is mystical.
4. It is not how things are in the world that is mystical, but that it exists.
A. 1-2-3-4
B. 2-1-3-4
C. 2-1-4-3
D. 3-1-4-2
E. 3-4-1-2
The correct answer is option A.

36:
1. The operation is what has to be done to one proposition in order to make other out of it.
2. Structure of proposition stands in internal relations to one another.
3. In order to give prominence to these internal relations we can adopt the following mode of expression: we can represent a proposition as the result of an operation that produces it out of other propositions (which are bases of the operation).
4. An operation is the expression of a relation between the structures of its result and of its bases.
A. 1-2-3-4
B. 2-3-4-1
C. 4-3-1-2
D. 2-1-3-4
E. 4-1-2-3
The correct answer is option B.

Directions (37-38): Go through the caselets below and answer the questions that follow.

37. Goodricke Group Ltd is planning to give top priority to core competence of production and marketing of tea in 2007. The company intends to increase the production of orthodox varieties of tea. Goodricke is planning to invest Rs. 10 crore to modernise the factories. The company has announced a net profit of Rs. 5.49 crore for 2006 as against Rs. 3.76 crore in 2005.

Which of the following can be deduced from the caselet?
A. Production and marketing is core competency of Goodricke Group.
B. Increase in production of existing products enhances core competence.
C. Core competence leads to modernization.
D. Core competence can be used for furthering company's interests.
E. Goodricke has given top priority to production because it has earned net profits of Rs. 5.49 crore.
The correct answer is option D.

38. The author reflects on the concept of Blue Ocean Strategy. He explains that this concept delivers an instinctive framework for developing uncontested market space and making the competition irrelevant. The author remarks that Blue Ocean Strategy is about having the best mix of attributes that result in creation of uncontested market space and high growth, and not about being the best.
The above paragraph appears to be an attempt at

A. defining Blue Ocean strategy.
B. developing the framework for Blue Ocean strategy.
C. reviewing an article or a book on Blue Ocean strategy.
D. highlighting how Blue Ocean strategy leads to better returns.
E. None of above.
The correct answer is option A.

 SECTION B: DATA INTERPRETATION AND QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

Note: All units of measurement are in centimetres, unless otherwise specified.

39. In the figure, number in any cell is obtained by adding two numbers in the cells directly below it. For example, 9 in the second row is obtained by adding the two numbers 4 and 5 directly below it. The value of X-Yis

A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.6
The correct answer is option C.

40. If F(x, n) be the number of ways of distributing "x" toys to "n" children so that each child receives at the most 2 toys then F(4,3)=_____?

A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.6
The correct answer is option E.

41. In a cricket match. Team A scored 232 runs without losing a wicket. The score consisted of byes, wides and runs scored by two opening batsmen: Ram and Shyam. The runs scored by the two batsmen are 26 times wides. There are 8 more byes than wides. If the ratio of the runs scored by Ram and Shyam is 6:7, then the runs scored by Ram is

A. 88
B. 96
C.102
D.112
E. None of the above.
The correct answer is option B.

For questions 42 & 43, a statement is followed by three conclusions. Select the answer from the following options.

A. Using the given statement, only conclusion I can be derived.
B. Using the given statement, only conclusion II can be derived.
C. Using the given statement, only conclusion III can be derived.
D. Using the given statement, all conclusions I, II and III can be derived.
E. Using the given statement, none of the three conclusions I, II and III can be derived.

42. An operation "#" is defined by
a # b = 1 – b/a

Conclusion I. (2 # 1) # (4 # 3) = -1
Conclusion II. (3 #1) # (4 #2)= -2
Conclusion III. (2#3) # (1#3) = 0
The correct answer is option E.

43. A, B, C and D are whole numbers such that
A+B+C =118
B + C + D = 156
C + D + A = 166
D + A + B = 178

Conclusion I. A is the smallest number and A=21.
Conclusion II. D is the largest number and D=88.
Conclusion III. B is the largest number and B=56.
The correct answer is option B.

44. Let X= {a, b, c} and Y= {1, m}. Consider the following four subsets of X ? Y.
F1 = { (a, 1), (a, m), (b, 1), (c, m)}
F2={(a, l), (b, l), (c, l)}
F3={(a, l), (b, m), (c, m)}
F4={(a, l), (b, m)}

Which one, amongst the choices given below, is a representation of functions from X to Y?
A. F1, F2 and F3
B.F2, F3 and F4
C. F2 and F3
D. F3 and F4
E. None of the above
The correct answer is option B.

45. ABCD is a rectangle with AD = 10. P is a point on BC such that ?APD = 90° If DP = 8 then the length of BP is __?
A.6.4
B.5.2
C.4.8
D.3.6
E. None of the above
The correct answer is option D.

46. Four digits of the number 29138576 are omitted so that the result is as large as possible. The largest omitted digit is
A.9
B.8
C.7
D.6
E.5
The correct answer is option E.

47. Rajiv is a student in a business school. After every test he calculates his cumulative average. QT and OB were his last two tests. 83 marks in QT increased his average by 2. 75 marks in OB further increased his average by 1. Reasoning is the next test, if he gets 51 in Reasoning, his average will be ___?
A.59
B.60
C.61
D.62
E.63
The correct answer is option E.

48. If [x] denotes the greatest integer <=x , then

=

A.98
B.67
C.66
D.34
E.33
The correct answer is option E.

49. ABCD is a square. P is the midpoint of AB. The line passing through A and perpendicular to DP intersects the diagonal at Q and BC at R.
If AB = 2 then PR = ___?

A. 1/2
B.
C.
D. 1
E. None of the above.
The correct answer is option C.

50. For each p>l, a sequence {An} is defined by Ao = 1 and An = pn + (-1)" An-1 for each n ? 1. For how many integer values of p, 1000 is a term of the sequence?
A.8
B.7
C.5
D.4
E. None of the above.
The correct answer is option E.

51. If 0<p< 1 then roots of the equation (1 - p)x2 + 4x + p = 0 are __?
A. Both 0
B. Imaginary
C. Real and both positive
D. Real and both negative
E. Real and of opposite sign.
The correct answer is option D.

52. If x> 0, the minimum value of

is ______?

A. 1
B.2
C.3
D.6
E. None of the above.
The correct answer is option D.

53. Consider a sequence –6, –12, 18, 24, –30, –36, 42,..... .If sum of the first n terms of the sequence is 132, then the value of n is ___?
A. 11
B. 13
C. 18
D. 22
E. 24
THE QUESTION IS WRONG. (Summation of this sequence cannot be 132).

54. The number of possible real solution(s) of y in equation y2 – 2y cos x + 1 = 0 is ___?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. None of the above.
The correct answer is option C.

55. In a triangle ABC, AB = 3, BC =4 and CA = 5. Point D is the midpoint of AB, point E is on segment C and point F is on segment BC. If AE = 1.5 and BF = 0.5 then ?DEF =

A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 75°
E. Cannot be determined
The correct answer is option B.

56. If 3 f(x + 2) + 4f = 4x, x.? – 2, then
f (4) =
A. 7
B. 52/7
C. 8
D. 56/7
E. None of the above.
The correct answer is option E.

57. A train left station X at A hour B minutes. It reached station Y at B hour C minutes on the same day, after travelling for C hours A minutes (clock shows time from 0 hours to 24 hours). Number of possible value(s) of A is __.

A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D.0
E. None of the above.
The correct answer is option D.

Questions 58-60: A, B, C, D, E and F are six positive integers such that
B+C+D+E = 4A
C+F = 3A
C + D + E = 2F
F = 2D
E + F = 2C + 1
If A is a prime number between 12 and 20, then

58. The value of C is
A. 13
B. 17
C. 19
D. 21
E. 23
The correct answer is option E.

59. The value of F is
A. 14
B. 16
C. 20
D. 24
E. 28
The correct answer is option E.

60. Which of the following must be true?
A. D is the lowest integer and D = 14

B. C is the greatest integer and C = 23
C. F is the greatest integer and F = 24
D. B is the lowest integer and B = 12
E. A is the lowest integer and A = 13
The correct answer is option A.

61. ABCD is a quadrilateral. The diagonals of ABCD intersect at the point P. The area of the triangles APD and BPC are 27 and 12, respectively. If the areas of the triangles APB and CPD are equal then the area of triangle APB is
A.12
B.15
C.16
D.18
E.21
The correct answer is option D.

62. Two circles of radius 1 cm. touch at point P. A third circle is drawn through the points A, B, and C such that PA is the diameter of the first circle, and BC –perpendicular to AP – is the diameter of the second circle. The radius of the third circle is __ cms.
A. 9/5
B. 7/4
C. 5/3
D.
E. 2
The correct answer is option C.

In the questions 63-64, one statement is followed by three conclusions. Select the appropriate answer from the options given below.

A. Using the given statement, only conclusion I can be derived.
B. Using the given statement, only conclusion II can be derived.
C. Using the given statement, only conclusion III can be derived.
D. Using the given statement, conclusions I, II and III can be derived.
E. Using the given statement, none of the three conclusions I, II and III can be derived.

63. A0, A1, A2,..…… is a sequence of numbers with A0= l, A1 =3,
and At = (t +l)At-1 –1 At - 2 for t = 2, 3, 4,
…
Conclusion I. A8 =77
Conclusion II. A10 = 121
Conclusion III. A12 = 145.
The correct answer is option E.

64. A, B, C be real numbers satisfying A < B < C, A + B + C = 6 and AB + BC + CA = 9

Conclusion I. 1 < B < 3
Conclusion II. 2 < A < 3
Conclusion III. 0<C<1
The correct answer is option A.

Question Nos. 65-66 are followed by two statements labelled as I and II. You have to decide if these statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the question. Choose the appropriate answer from options given below:

A. If Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B. If Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. If Statement I and Statement II together are sufficient but neither of the two alone is sufficient to answer the question.
D. If either Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
E. Both Statement I and Statement II are insufficient to answer the question.

65. The base of a triangle is 60 cms, and one of the base angles is 60°. What is length of the shortest side of the triangle?
I. The sum of lengths of other two sides is 80 cms.
II. The other base angle is 45°.
The correct answer is option D.

66. A, B, C, D, E and F are six integers such that E < F, B > A, A < D < B. C is the greatest integer. Is A the smallest integer?
I. E+B<A+D
II. D<F
The correct answer is option A.

67. The coordinates of P and Q are (0, 4) and (a, 6), respectively. R is the midpoint of PQ. The perpendicular bisector of PQ cuts X-axis at point S (b, 0). For how many integer value(s) of “a”, b is an integer?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
E. 0
The correct answer is option A.

Questions 68-69; In second year, students at a business school can opt for Systems, Operations, or HR electives only. The number of girls opting for Operations and the number of boys opting for Systems electives is 37. Twenty-two students opt for operations electives. Twenty girls opt for Systems and Operations electives. The number of students opting for Systems electives and the number of boys opting for Operations electives is 37. Twenty-five students opt for HR electives.

68. The number of students in the second year is_?
A.73
B.74
C.75
D.76
E.77
The correct answer is option D.

69. If 20% of the girls opt for HR electives, then the total number of boys in the second year is _?
A.50
B.51
C.52
D.53
E.54
The correct answer is option B.

Answer the question nos. 70 to 74 on the basis of the data given below:

Units ordered=Units Sold + Ending Inventory – Beginning Inventory
All sales figures are in Rupees thousand.
All other things are constant
All Rupees figures are in thousands

70. In the period from January to March, Jamshedpur Electronics sold 3150 units of television, having started with a beginning inventory of 2520 units and ending with an inventory of 2880. What was value of order placed (Rupees in thousands) by Jamshepur Electronics during the three month period? [Profits are 25% of cost price, uniformly.]

A. 28080
B. 2808
C. 26325
D. 22320
E. 25200
The correct answer is option E.

71. What was the total value of surcharge paid – at the rate of 14% of sales value – by Jamshedpur Electronics, over the period of three months?
A. Cannot be calculated
B.18522
C.18548
D.18425
E.18485
The correct answer is option B.

72. 10% of sales price of Ipods and 20% of sales price of television contribute to the profits of Jamshedpur Electronics. How much profit did the company earn in the month of January from Bistupur and Kadma from the two products?
A. 513
B. 4410
C. 3645
D. 5230
E. 5350
The correct answer is option C.

73. In the period from January to March, consider that Jamshedpur Electronics ordered 7560 units of Ipods for all three areas put together. What was unit sales price of Ipod during the period? The ending inventory was 6120 units and the beginning inventory stood at 5760.

A. 14.00
B. 14.65
C. 14.80
D. 13.00
E. 13.60
The correct answer is option A.

74. For Jamshedpur Electronics beginning inventory was 720 for televisions and 1800 for Ipods and ending inventory was 840 for televisions and 1920 for Ipods in the month of January. How many units of televisions and Ipods did Jamshedpur Electronics order for the month of January? Additional data: In the month of February, 1050 units of televisions and 2400 units of Ipods were sold in all three areas put together.

A.1020,2270
B.1020,2370
C.2270,1030
D.1030,2370
E. 1020, 2280
The correct answer is option B.

Answer question nos. 75 to 77 on the basis of the graph given below:

75. In which month did the company earn maximum profits?

A.5
B.4
C.3
D.2
E.1
The correct answer is option E.

76. In which month did the company witness maximum sales growth?
A. 9
B. 6
C. 7
D. 4
E. 1
The correct answer is option D.

77. What were average sales and costs figures for XYZ Co. over the period of ten months?
A. 1819,1651
B.1919,1751
C.1969,1762
D. 1719,1601
E.1619,1661
The correct answer is option A.

78. Interpret relationship between the returns of Stock X and Mutual Fund Y based on the following graph, where percentage return of Stock X and Mutual Fund Y are given for sixteen days of a month.

A. Returns of stock X are directly proportional to mutual fund Y.
B. Average returns from stock X and mutual fund Y are the same.
C. Stock X is less volatile than mutual fund Y.
D. Stock X is inversely proportional to mutual fund Y.
E. Stock X is more volatile than mutual fund Y
The correct answer is option E.

Answer question nos. 79 through 82 on the basis of the data given below.
Gender bias is defined as disproportion in percentage of drop-out rate of the two genders.

79. Based on the data above, choose the true statement from the following alternatives:
A. Gender bias in primary education has consistently decreased over the years.
B. Gender bias decreases as students move from primary to secondary classes.
C. Total drop-out rate decreased consistently for primary classes children from 1996-97 to 2004 – 05
D. Gender bias was consistently highest for secondary classes.
E. None of the above.
The correct answer is option E.

80. Assume that girls constituted 55% of the students entering school. In which year, as compared to the previous year, number of boys in secondary education would be more than the number of girls?
A.1997-98
B. 1996-97
C.2000-01
D.1998-99
E. 2001-02
The correct answer is option C.

81. Suppose, every year 7,000 students entered Class I, out of which 45% were boys. What was the average number (integer value) of girls, who remained in educational system after elementary classes, from 1996-97 to 2004-05?
A.1475
B. 1573
C. 1743
D. 1673
E. 3853
The correct answer is option D.

82. Suppose the total number of students in 1996-97 were 1,000 and the number of students increased every year by 1000, up to 2004-05. The total number of drop-outs from primary classes, from 1996-97 to 2004-05, were (approximately) _?
A. 18500
B. 19500
C. 16000
D. 24500
E. 11500
The correct answer is option B.

SECTION C: ANALYTICAL REASONING & DECISION MAKING

Directions (Question No 83-103):
Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

Question No 83-86: There are exactly ten stores and no other buildings on a straight street in Bistupur Market. On the northern side of the street, from West to East, are stores 1, 3, 5, 7, and 9; on the southern side of the street, also from West to East, are stores 2, 4, 6, 8, and 10. The stores on the northern side are located directly across the street from those on the southern side, facing each other in pairs, as follows: 1 and 2; 3 and 4; 5 and 6; 7 and 8; 9 and 10. Each store is decorated with lights in exactly one of the following colours: green, red and yellow. The stores have been decorated with lights according to the following conditions:

No store is decorated with lights of the same colour as those of any store adjacent to it. No store is decorated with lights of the same colour as those of the store directly across the street from it. Yellow lights decorate exactly one store on each side of the street. Red lights decorate store 4. Yellow lights decorate store 5.

83. Which one of the following could be an accurate list of the colours of the lights that decorate stores 2, 4, 6, 8 and 10, respectively?

A. green, red, green, red, green
B. green, red, green, yellow, red
C. green, red, yellow, red, green
D. yellow, green, red, green, red
E. yellow, red, green, red, yellow
The correct answer is option B.

84. If green lights decorate store 7, then each of the following statements could be false EXCEPT:

A. Green lights decorate store 2
B. Green lights decorate store 10
C. Red lights decorate store 8
D. Red lights decorate store 9
E. Yellow lights decorate store 2
The correct answer is option D.

85. Which one of the following statements MUST be true?

A. Green lights decorate store 10
B. Red lights decorate store 1
C. Red lights decorate store 8
D. Yellow lights decorate store 8
E. Yellow lights decorate store 10
The correct answer is option B.

86. Suppose that yellow lights decorate exactly two stores on the south side of the street and exactly one store on the north side. If all other conditions remain the same, then which one of the following statements MUST be true?
A. Green lights decorate store 1
B. Red lights decorate store 7
C. Red lights decorate store 10
D. Yellow lights decorate store 2
E. Yellow lights decorate store 8
The correct answer is option D.

Question No 87-90: Professor Mukhopadhay works only on Mondays, Tuesdays, Wednesdays, Fridays, and Saturdays. She performs four different activities - lecturing, conducting quizzes, evaluating quizzes, and working on consultancy projects. Each working day she performs exactly one activity in the morning and exactly one activity in the afternoon. During each week her work schedule MUST satisfy the following restrictions:

She conducts quizzes on exactly three mornings. If she conducts quizzes on Monday, she does not conduct a quiz on Tuesday. She lectures in the afternoon on exactly two consecutive calendar days. She evaluates quizzes on exactly one morning and three afternoons. She works on consultancy project on exactly one morning. On Saturday, she neither lectures nor conducts quizzes.

87. On Wednesdays, the Professor could be scheduled to
A. Work on a consultancy project in the morning and conduct a quiz in the afternoon
B. Lecture in the morning and evaluate quizzes in the afternoon
C. Conduct a quiz in the morning and lecture in the afternoon
D. Conduct a quiz in the morning and work on consultancy project in the afternoon
E. Evaluate quizzes in the morning and evaluate quizzes in the afternoon
The correct answer is option C.

88. Which one of the following statements must be true?
A. There is one day on which she evaluates quizzes both in the morning and in the afternoon.
B. She works on consultancy project on one of the days on which she lectures.
C. She works on consultancy project on one of the days on which she evaluates quizzes.
D. She lectures on one of the days on which evaluates quizzes.
E. She lectures on one of the days on which she conducts quiz.
The correct answer is option E.

89. If the Professor conducts a quiz on Tuesday, then her schedule for evaluating quizzes could be
A. Monday morning, Monday afternoon, Friday morning, Friday afternoon
B. Monday morning, Friday afternoon, Saturday morning, Saturday afternoon
C. Monday afternoon, Wednesday morning Wednesday afternoon, Saturday afternoon
D. Wednesday morning, Wednesday afternoon, Friday afternoon, Saturday afternoon
E. Wednesday afternoon, Friday afternoon, Saturday morning, Saturday afternoon
The correct answer is option E.

90. Which one of the following must be a day on which Professor lectures?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Wednesday
D. Friday
E. Saturday
The correct answer is option B.

Question Nos 91-94: During a four-week period, each one of seven previously unadvertised products - G, H, J, K, L, M am 0 - will be advertised. A different pair of these products will be advertised each week Exactly one of the products will be a member of two of these four pairs. None of the other products gets repeated in any pair. Further, the following constraints must be observed:

J is not advertised during a given week unless H is advertised during the immediately preceding week.
The product that is advertised twice is advertised during week 4 but is not advertised during week 3.
G is not advertised during a given week unless either J or 0 is also advertised that week.
K is advertised during one of the first two weeks.
O is one of the products advertised during week 3.

91. Which one of the following could be the schedule of the advertisements?
A. Week 1: G, J; week 2: K, L; week 3: O, M; week 4: H, L
B. Week 1: H, K; week 2: J, G; week 3: O, L; week 4: M, K
C. Week 1: H, K; week 2: J, M; week 3: 0, L; week 4: G, M
D. Week 1: H, L; week 2: J, M; week 3: 0,G; week 4: K, L
E. Week 1: K, M; week 2: H, J; week 3: 0, G; week 4: L, M
The correct answer is option B.

92. If L is the product that is advertised during two of the weeks, which one of the following is a product that MUST be advertised during one of the weeks in which L is advertised?
A.G
B.H
C.J
D.K
E.M
The correct answer is option E.

93. Which one of the following is a product that could be advertised in any of the four weeks?
A.H
B.J
C.K
D.L
E.O
The correct answer is option D.

Note : - In Set "B" two correct options were present.

94. Which one of the following is a pair of products that could be advertised during the same week?
A. G and H
B. H and J
C. H and 0
D. K and 0
E. M and 0
The correct answer is option E.

Question Nos. 95-99: In a game, “words” (meaningful or meaningless) consist of any combination of at least five letters of the English alphabets. A “sentence” consists of exactly six words and satisfies the following conditions:
The six words are written from left to right on a single line in alphabetical order. The sentence can start with any word, and successive word is formed by applying exactly one of three operations to the preceding word: delete one letter; add a letter; replace one letter with another. At the most three of the six words can begin with the same letter. Except for the first word, each word is formed by a different operation used for the preceding word.

95. Which one of the following could be a sentence in the word game?
A. Bzaeak blaeak laeak paeak paea paean
B. Crobek croeek roeek soeek sxoeek xoeek
C. Doteam goleam golean olean omean omman
D. Feted freted reted seted seteg aseteg
E. Forod forol forols forpls orpls morpls
The correct answer is option B.

96. The last letter of the English alphabet that the first word of a sentence in the word game can begin with is
A. t
B. w
C. x
D. y
E. z
The correct answer is option D.

97. If the first word in a sentence is "illicit" and the fourth word is "licit", then the third word can be
A. Implicit
B. Explicit
C. Elicit
D. Enlist
E. Inlist
Correct Answer is not available amongst given options.

98. If “clean” is the first word in a sentence and “learn” is another word in the sentence, then which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the positions “learn” could occupy?
A. Third
B. Second, third, fourth
C. Third, fourth
D. Third, fourth, fifth
E. Third, fourth, fifth, sixth
The correct answer is option E.

99. If the first word in a sentence consists of five letters, then the maximum number of letters that the fifth word in the sentence could contain is

A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
E. Eight
The correct answer is option D.

Question No 100-103: Six square states having equal area in a country are located in North-South direction in two columns next to each other. States are located in the given order, State 1, State 3, and State 5 are on the western side and State 2, State 4, and State 6 are on the eastern side. Within the six states, there are exactly four medical institutes, two management institutes, and two technical institutes. These eight institutions are located as follows:

No institution is in more than one of the states.
None of the states contain more than one management institute, and none contains more than one technical institute.
None of the states contain both a management institute and a technical institute.
Each management institute is located in a state that contains at least one medical institute.
The technical institutes are located in two states that do not share a common boundary.
State 3 contains a technical institute, and State 6 contains a management institute.

100. Which one of the following could be true?

A. State 1 contains exactly one medical institute
B. State 1 contains exactly one technical institute
C. State 2 contains exactly one management institute
D. State 5 contains exactly one technical institute
E. State 6 contains exactly one technical institute
The correct answer is option A.

101. A complete and accurate list of the states, any one of which could contain the management institute that is not in state 6, would be __.

A. 1,4
B. 2, 4
C. 4, 5
D. 1, 4, 5
E. 1, 2, 4, 5
The correct answer is option D.

102. If each of the six states contain at least one of the eight institutions, then which of the following must be true?
A. There is a management institute in state 1
B. There is a medical institute in state 2
C. There is a medical institute in state 3
D. There is a medical institute in state 4
E. There is a management institute in state 4
The correct answer is option D.

103. If one of the states contains exactly medical institutes and exactly one technical institute, then which combination of three states might contain no medical institute
A. 1,3,5
B.I, 4, 5
C. 2, 3, 5
D. 2, 4, 6
E. 4, 5, 6
The correct answer is option A.

Question nos. 104-106: Go through the situation and the accompanying table, and pick up the best alternative to answer.

Question Nos. 104-105: There are five sets of digits – Set A, Set B, Set C, Set D and Set E as shown in given diagram. Set A contains one digit, Set B contains two digits, Set C contains three digits, Set D contains two digits, and Set E contains one digit.
Rearrange the digits, across the sets, such that the number formed out of digits of Set C is a multiple of the numbers formed from digits in sets on either side. For example; in the given diagram, SET C is a multiple of digits in SET A and SET B but not of SET D and SET E.

104. What is the minimum number of rearrangements required to arrive at the solution? A rearrangement is defined as an exchange of positions between digits across two sets. For example: when 1 from set C is exchanged with 5 of set E, it is counted as one rearrangement.
A. 2
B.5
C.8
D.3
E.7
The correct answer is option D.

105. Which of the following pair of digits would occupy set A and E?
A. 2 and 4
B. 2 and 6
C. 3 and 6
D. 3 and 9
E. 4 and 8
The correct answer is option A.

Q 106: Magic Box

Cut the square given above into four pieces along the lines and rearrange in such a manner that sum of all rows, columns and diagonals is equal to 34. One of the pieces, comprising 1 and 8, is shown in the diagram given below

How many numbers would be there in the largest piece?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 9
D. 10
E. 8
THE QUESTION IS WRONG.(PRINTING MISTAKE:- "14" is missing).

Questions 107 -110:

Read the following situations and choose the best possible alternative.

107. You, a recruitment manager, are interviewing Mayank, a hard-working young man, who has problems in speaking fluent English. He has studied in vernacular medium schools and colleges. Amongst the following options, what would you choose to do, if your company has vacancies?

A. I would hire him at all costs.
B. I would hire him for a production or finance job but not for a marketing job, which requires good communication skills.
C. I would ask him to improve his communication skills and come back again.
D. I would not hire him as he might be a burden on the organisation because of his poor communication skills.
E. I would hire him for the job he is good at, and provide training in other areas.
The correct answer is option E.

108. The city of Nagar has a population of 10 million, 2 million amongst whom were rich, 3 million poor and 5 million belonged to the middle class. Saundarya Cosmetics manufactured and sold beauty product to the rich class at a premium price. Its products were very popular with customers. Many people from middle and poor segments of population aspired to buy these products but could not afford them because of high prices. Of late, sales growth was stagnating in the rich segment. Which of the following is the best option for Saundarya Cosmetics to maximize long-term profits?

A. Sell the same products at lower prices to middle and poor class.
B. Sell its products under different brand names to middle and poor class.
C. Sell similar products, of different quality standards with different brand names, to middle class and poor class.
D. Continue to target rich only and hope that today's middle class would be tomorrow's rich class.
E. Target middle class as it is the largest segment and forget about the rich.
The correct answer is option C.

109. Seema was a finance manager in an MNC and felt that gender discrimination at the workplace hampered her career growth. Frustrated, she quit the job and started a company. While starting her company, Seema decided that she would have an equal proportion of males and females. Over the last six years, Seema emerged as a very successful entrepreneur and expanded her business to eight locations in the country. However, Seema recently started facing an ethical dilemma because she realized that female employees were not willing to travel across cities and work late hours, as the work required them to do so. Male employees did not hesitate undertaking such work. Seema started to feel the pressure of reducing the proportion of female employees. On the other hand, she is aware that equal representation was one of the strongest reasons for her to have founded the company. What should she do as a conscientious female entrepreneur?
A. See if unwilling female employees could be given assignments which do not require travel and involve less overtime.
B. Reduce the number of female employees, as it is a business requirement. She should not let anything affect her business.
C. Let the status quo continue.
D. Henceforth hire only male employees
E. She should close the business.
The correct answer is option B.

110. A database software manufacturing company found out that a product it has launched recently had a few bugs. The product has already been bought by more than a million customers. The company realized that bugs could cost its customer significantly. However, if it informs the customers about the bug, it feared losing credibility. What would be the most ethical option for the company?
A. Apologize and fix up the bug for all customers even if it has to incur losses.
B. Do not tell customers about bugs and remove them only when customers face problems, even if it meant losses for the customers.
C. Keep silent and do nothing.
D. Keep silent but introduce an improved product that is bug-free at the earliest.
E. Take the product off the market and apologize to customers.
The correct answer is option A.

Go through the table that follows and pick up the best alternative to answer the questions. Question nos. 111 to 113.

Teams A, B, C and D are participating in a cricket tournament. Team A has to pick up five batsmen out of the ten available. All batsmen have played 100 matches each in the past. Past data indicates that C beats A 8 out of 10 times. B beats A 5 out of 10 times and D beats A 1 out of 10 times. The conditions for the series are likely to be normal and bowling strength of all teams is the same. Manager of Team A, based on his past experience, feels that the team should take a high risk against stronger opponents and a low risk against weaker opponents for maximizing chances of winning the game.

The average score of the top 10 batsmen of team A is provided in the table given below.

The average scores of the top 5 batsmen for each team playing in the tournament are:
C (270); B (215); D (180) and A (215).

111. Team A is playing its first match with team C. Based on the statistics above, whom should the manager choose so that the team has maximum chances of winning?

A.RD, ST, SG, MD, YS
B.VS, YS, RU, MD, MT
C.RD, ST, SG, VS, MD
D.YS, RU, VS, MK, MD
E. ST, VS, RU, MD, SG

112. Team A would play the second match with D. Based on the statistics above, whom should the manager choose so that A has maximum chances of winning?
A. RD, ST, MD, VS, YS
B. ST, RD, VV, SG, MD
C. RD, ST, SG, VS, MD
D. SG, RU, YS, MK, MD
E. ST, RD, MK, MD, SG

113. Team A would play the third match with B. Based on the statistics above, whom should the manager choose so that A has maximum chances of winning?
A. RD, RU, MK, VS, YS
B. ST, RD, MK, MD, SG
C.RD, VS, MT, RU, YS
D. RD, VV, SG, VS, MD
E. SG, RU, YS, MK, VV
ANSWERS WILL BE UPLOADED SOON.

Read the following caselet and choose the best alternative (Questions 114-119):

Mr. Rajiv Singhal, Chairman of the Board of Directors of Loha India Ltd., (a steel manufacturing company) had just been visited by several other directors of the company. The directors were upset with recent actions of the company president, Mr. Ganesh Thakur. They demanded that the board consider firing the president.

Mr. Thakur, recently appointed as president, had undertaken to solve some of the management-employee problems by dealing directly with the individuals, as often as possible. The company did not have a history of strikes or any other form of collective action and was considered to have good work culture. However, Mr. Thakur felt that by dealing directly with individuals, he could portray the management's concern for the employees. An important initiative of Mr. Thakur was to negotiate wages of the supervisors with each supervisor. In these negotiation meetings, he would not involve anyone else, including the Personnel

Department which reported to him, so as to take an unbiased decision. After negotiation, a wage contract would be drawn up for each supervisor. This, he felt, would recognize and reward the better performers. Mr. Thakur successfully implemented the process for most of the supervisors, except those working in night shifts. For them he had drawn up the contracts unilaterally benchmarking the wages of supervisors of the night shift with that of supervisors of the day shift.

For several days Ram Lal, a night shift supervisor, had been trying to seek an appointment with Mr. Thakur about his wages. He was disgruntled, not only over his failure to see the president, but also over the lack of discussions about his wage contract prior to its being effected. As a family man with six dependents, he felt his weekly wage should be higher than that granted to him.

Last Thursday afternoon Ram Lal stopped by the president's office and tried to see him. Mr. Thakur's secretary refused his request on the grounds that Mr. Thakur was busy. Infuriated, Ram Lal stormed into the president's office and confronted the startled Mr. Thakur, with his demands for a better wage. Mr. Thakur stood up and told Ram Lal to get out of his office and express his grievance through the official channel. Ram Lal took a swing at the president, who in turn punched Ram Lal on the jaw and knocked him unconscious.

114. The most likely premise behind Mr. Thakur's initiative regarding individualised meetings with the supervisors seems to be
A. Involvement of the company's president in wage problems of employees will lead to a better goodwill towards the management among the workers.
B. Employee-related policies should allow scope for bargaining by employees which lead to unsatisfied employees.
C. Individual agreements with supervisors would allow the management to prevent any possible collective action by the supervisors.
D. Management will be able to force supervisors to accept lesser wages individually in this way.
E. He would be able to know who the trouble makers in the plant are by interacting with the supervisors
The correct answer is option A.

115. Out of the following, which one seems to be the most likely cause of Ram Lal’s grievance?
A. His disappointment with the management's philosophy of having one to one interaction as the supervisors were in a way being forced to accept the wage contracts.
B. His being in the night shift had worked to his disadvantage as he could not interact with the management regarding his problem.
C. He was not allowed to meet the chairman of the board of directors of the company.
D. Employment in the night shift forced him to stay away from his family during the day time and therefore he could not interact with his family members much.
E. All of these.
The correct answer is option A.

116. Apart from the supervisors working the night shift, executives of which department will have the most justified reasons to be to disgruntled with Mr. Thakur's initiative?
1. Production department – for not being consulted regarding the behaviour of the supervisors on the shop floor.
2. Finance department – for not being taken into confidence regarding the financial consequences of the wage contracts.
3. Marketing department – for not being consulted on the likely impact of the wage contracts on the image of the company.
4. Quality control – for not being able to give inputs to Mr. Thakur on how to improve the quality of steel making process.
5. Personnel department – for it was their work to oversee wage policies for employees and they had been ignored by Mr. Thakur.

A.1+2+3
B.1+4+5
C.1+3+4
D.1+2+5
E.3+4+5
The correct answer is option D.

117. Which of the following managerial attributes does Mr. Thakur seem to lack the most?
A. Emotional instability under pressure
B. Proactive problem solving
C. Ethical behaviour
D. Independent decision making
E. Emotional stability under pressure
The correct answer is option A.

118. The most important causal factor for this entire episode could be:
A. Trying to follow a divide-and-rule policy in his dealings with the supervisors.
B. Paternalistic approach towards mature individuals in the organisation.
C. Legalistic approach to employee problems.
D. Inconsistent dealings of Mr. Thakur with supervisors.
E. Inadequate standards for measurement of supervisors' on-job performances.
The correct answer is option D.

119. The situation with Mr. Lal could have been avoided if Mr. Thakur had
1. Delegated the task of negotiation of wage contracts for night shift employees to the Personnel department.
2. Created a process for supervisors working the night shift so that they could have an opportunity to interact with him.
3. Created an open-door policy that would have allowed employees to see him without any appointment.
4. Postponed the decision of wage revision for supervisors in the night shift for two months, since supervisors were rotated on different shifts after every two months.

The option that best arranges the above managerial interventions in decreasing order of organisational impact is:
A. 4, 2, 3, 1
B. 4, 3, 2, 1
C. 4, 3, 1, 2
D. 4, 1, 2, 3
E. 2, 3, 1, 4
The correct answer is option E.

Read the following situation and choose the best possible alternative.

120. The surnames of four professionals are: Bannerji, Chatterji, Mukherji and Pestonj. Their professions are accountant, lawyer, dentist and doctor (not necessarily in this order). The accountant and lawyer work in their offices, while the dentist and doctor work in their nursing homes. The accountant looks after Mukherji's and Chatterji's account. Chatterji does not know Bannerji, although his nursing home is on the same street as Bannerji's office. Chatterji is not a doctor.

What are the occupations of the four people?
A. Bannerji - Doctor, Chatterji - Dentist, Mukherji - Accountant and Pestonji - Lawyer
B. Bannerji - Lawyer, Chatterji - Dentist, Mukherji - Accountant and Pestonji - Doctor
C. Bannerji - Doctor, Chatterji - Accountant, Mukherji - Dentist and Pestonji - Lawyer
D. Bannerji - Lawyer, Chatterji - Dentist, Mukherji - Doctor and Pestonji - Accountant
E. Bannerji - Dentist, Chatterji - Lawyer, Mukherji - Doctor and Pestonji - Accountant
The correct answer is option D.